Kế hoạch và nội dung ôn thi THPT QG năm 2020 môn Tiếng Anh Lớp 12

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Kế hoạch và nội dung ôn thi THPT QG năm 2020 môn Tiếng Anh Lớp 12
TRƯỜNG THPT AN KHÁNH
TỔ NGOẠI NGỮ
CỘNG HÒA XÃ HỘI CHỦ NGHĨA VIỆT NAM
Độc lập – Tự do – Hạnh phúc
An Khánh, ngày 10 tháng 02 năm 2020
KẾ HOẠCH VÀ NỘI DUNG
 Ôn thi THPT quốc gia năm 2020 
Giai đoạn 1: 8 tuần x 2 tiết= 16 tiết
Thời gian
Tiết
Nội dung
Ghi chú
1-2
Practice test 3 ( Unit 12)
Vocabulary + Grammar Unit 12
3-4
Practice test 3( Unit 13)
Vocabulary + Grammar Unit 13
5-6
Practice test 4( Unit 14)
Vocabulary + Grammar Unit 14
7-8
Practice test 5 ( Unit 15)
Vocabulary + Grammar Unit 15
9-10
Practice test 6( Unit 16)
Vocabulary + Grammar Unit 10
11-12
Practice test 1( Unit 10)
Vocabulary + Grammar Unit 10
13-14
Practice test 2( Unit 11)
Vocabulary + Grammar Unit 10
15-16
Model Tests + Revision
PERIOD 1-2
PRACTICE TEST 1 (Unit 10)
OBJECTIVES: By the end of the lesson, Ss will be able to master the main grammar points of Unit 10, enhance new vocabulary relating to Unit 10 and improve their reading skill through practice.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. 
1. 	A. cut	B. number	C. hunt	D. human
2. 	A. chance	B. which	C. chemical	D. China
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions. 
3. 	A. sociable	B. rhinoceros	C. vulnerable	D. habitat
4. 	A. biodiversity	B. exploitation	C. deforestation	D. urbanization
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. 
5. You’re having a sore throat. You ___________ go to the doctor.
A. ought	B. had better	C. had to	D. may
6. I would rather ____________ poor but happy than become rich without happiness.
A. being	B. to be	C. was	D. be
7. “What are you doing this weekend?” –“I haven’t decided yet. I __________ go on a picnic with my family”
A. may	B. may not	C. must	D. needn’t
8. “Have you seen Jack?” –“No. But he __________ be studying in the library”
A. must	B. should	C. needn’t	D. may
9. It isn’t necessary for him to arrive so early.
A. He needn’t arrive so early	B. He shouldn’t arrive so early
C. He mustn’t arrive late	D. He needs to arrive early
10. There are a lot of tickets left, so you ___________ pay for the tickets in advance.
A. mustn’t	B. won’t	C. shouldn’t	D. don’t have to
11. I _______ find my own way there. You _______ wait for me.
A. should / can't 	B. have to / must 	C. can / needn't	D. might / mustn't
12. _________ to the last Christmas party, she _________, but nobody invited her.
	A. Had she been invited – would have come	B. If she had been invited – would come
	C. If che had invited – would come	D. Had she invited – would have come
13. But for the hold-up, we ___________ here in time.
	A. would have been 	B. could be	C. had been	D. must have been
14. He is rumoured to __________ on the way home.
	A. have been attacked	B. attacked	C. be attacked	D. have attacked
15. Today many species of plant and animal are in ___________ of extinction.
A. threat	B. danger	C. need	D. plenty
16. A majority of local people have been infected with a dangerous disease because of the ________ water taken from the river.
A. dusty	B. polluting	C. chemical	D. contaminated
17. The Red List has been introduced to raise people’s awareness __________ conservation needs.
A. on	B. of	C. at	D. for
18. Different ________________ efforts have been made in order to save endangered species.
A. conserving	B. conserved	C. conservation	D. conservative
19. It is reported that humans are the main reason for most species' declines and habitat _______ and degradation are the leading threats.
A. destroy 	B. destructive 	C. destructor 	D. destruction
20. We have to apply effective measures to save many plant and animal species _______ extinction.
A. from	B. in	C. for 	D. on
21. Chemical wastes from factories are _______ that cause serious damage to species habitats.
A. pollutes	B. pollutants	C. pollutions 	D. pollution
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. 
22. Life on Earth is disappearing fast and will continue to do so unless urgent action is taken.
A. vanishing	B. damaging 	C. polluting 	D. destroying
23. Hunting for meat and burning forests for soil cause destruction to wildlife.
A. organization 	B. contamination 	C. protection 	D. damage
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. 
24. World Wide Fund for Nature was formed to do the mission of the preservation of biological diversity, sustainable use of natural resources, and the reduction of pollution and wasteful consumption.
A. contamination 	B. purity 	C. extinction 	D. development
25. It is found that endangeredspecies are often concentrated in areas that are poor and densely populated, such as much of Asia and Africa.
A. disappeared 	B. vanished 	C. threatened 	D. protected
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. 
26. The mobile phone is too expensive for me to buy.
A. The mobile phone is so expensive that I can’t buy it.
B. The mobile phone is such expensive that I can’t buy it.
C. The mobile phone is too expensive that I can’t buy it.
D. It is such expensive mobile phone that I can’t buy it.
27. He cannot afford a new computer.
	A. So, he would buy a new computer.
	B. Therefore, he would buy a new computer.
	C. The new computer is so expensive that he cannot buy it.
	D. The new computer is so expensive but he can buy it.
28. It is said that the company is planning a new advertising campaign.
A. The company is said to be planning a new advertising campaign.
B. The company is said to plan a new advertising campaign.
C. The company is being planned a new advertising campaign.
D. The company is said to be planned a new advertising campaign.
29. My car keys are possibly in the kitchen.
	A. My car keys should be put in the kitchen.	B. My car keys cannot be put in the kitchen.
	C. I do not know whether my car keys are in the kitchen	 D. My car keys might be put in the kitchen.
30. I have been studying business administration at the National University in Hanoi for 4 years.
A. I began studying business administration at the National University in Hanoi 4 years ago.
B. I have been studying business administration at the National University in Hanoi since 2004.
C. I’ve started studying business administration at the National University in Hanoi 4 years ago.
D. I will study business administration at the National University in Hanoi in more 4 years.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. 
31. What was the name of the man? You met and talked to him this morning.
	A. What was the name of the man who you met and talked to him this morning?
	B. What was the name of the man you met and talked to this morning?
	C. What was the name of the man you met and talked to whom this morning?
	D. What was the name of the man whose you met and talked to this morning?
32. Sue lives in the house. The house is opposite my house.
A. Sue lives in the house which is opposite my house.
B. Sue lives in the house who is opposite my house.
C. Sue lives in the house where is opposite my house.
D. Sue lives in the house and which is opposite my house.
33. The old man is working in this factory. I borrowed his bicycle yesterday.
	A. The old man is working in this factory which I borrowed his bicycle yesterday.
	B. The old man whom is working in this factory I borrowed his bicycle yesterday.
	C. The old man whom I borrowed his bicycle yesterday is working in this factory.
	D. The old man whose bicycle I borrowed yesterday is working in this factory.
34. Hung didn’t call Lan. It was too late.
A. Hung will call Lan, if it is early.	
B. If it were not late, Hung would call Lan.
C. Hung didn’t plan to call Lan, but he changed his mind at the last minute.
D. If it hadn’t been so late, Hung would have called Lan.
35. You don’t try to work hard. You will fail in the exam.
	A. Unless you don’t try to work hard, you will fail in the exam.
	B. Unless you try to work hard, you won’t fail in the exam.
	C. Unless you try to work hard, you will fail in the exam.
	D. Unless do you try to work hard, you will fail in the exam.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. 
36. Species become extinct or endangerment for a number of reasons, but the primary cause is the
A	B
destruction of habitat by human activities.
 	C 	D
37. Although species evolve differently, most of them adapt to a specific habitat or environment that best 
A 	 B 	 C
meets their survive needs. 
 	 D
38. Without the particularly habitat, the species could not survive.
 A 	B 	 C D
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of the following exchanges. 
39. Lan: you speak English very fluently, Mai. I really enjoy your public speaking.
Mai: 
	A. Thank you, Lan. It’s nice of you to say so.	C. You’re welcome.
	B. Yes, I speak English very well.	D. Yes, of course.
40. Daisy: Hi, Susan! 
Susan: Oh, hi. It has been a long while.
A. Haven’t seen you in ages!	C. How are you?
B. How’s your family?	D. it was great seeing you. Bye!
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blank.
From our start in 1961, WWF has worked (41) ____ endangered species. We're ensuring that the world our children inherit will be home to elephants, tigers, giant pandas, whales and other wildlife species, as well as people.	
WWF safeguards hundreds of species around the world, but we focus special attention (42) ____ our flagship species: giant pandas, tigers, polar bears, endangered whales and dolphins, rhinos, elephants, marine turtles and great apes. These species not only need special measures and extra protection (43)______ survive, they also serve as umbrella species: helping them helps numerous other species that live in the same habitats.
WWF and its partners have a number of projects around the world to reduce Human-Wildlife Conflict and (44)______ the livelihoods of the people affected.
In addition to our flagship animals, we work to protect numerous species in peril around the world that live within our priority excoriations. Large predators like snow leopards and grizzly bears, migratory species like whooping cranes and songbirds, and a host of other species facing threats also benefit from WWF's (45)_____efforts. Our wildlife trade experts at TRAFFIC work to ensure that trade in wildlife products doesn't harm a species, while also fighting against illegal and unsustainable trade.
41. A. to protect 	B. to destroy 	C. to damage 	D. to threaten
42. A. in 	B. at 	C. on 	D. about 
43. A. so that 	B. in order to 	C. due to 	D. because of
44. A. improve 	B. impact	C. protect 	D. save 
45. A. conserve 	B. conservative 	C. conserved	D. conservation 
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. 
By the year 2025, the Earth could lose as many as one fifth of all species known to exist today. In recent centuries, hundreds of species have disappeared, almost always as a result of human activities. The passenger pigeon, one familiar example, was a source of food until excessive hunting and habitat loss caused its extinction in 1914. The North American bison, whose populations were decimated by settlers and market hunters in the 1800s, came close to sharing the same fate. Bison survive today only because of the efforts of early conservationists.
Today, species require such efforts more urgently than ever. An essential task that falls to present-day conservationists is to determine which species are most, endangered, so that conservation resources' can be applied where action is needed most. Species are categorized by the degree to which their survival in the wild is threatened. World Wildlife Fund offers a sampling of animals and plants that fall mainly within the two most serious categories of- threat: critically endangered and endangered. What threatens these species' existence? Some of the top threats are habitat destruction by unsustainable logging and ever-encroaching human settlement; pollution of water, soil, and air by toxic chemicals; unnatural climate changes due to fossil fuel use; unmanaged fishing that exhausts fish stocks; and illegal hunting to supply the demand for skins, hides, traditional medicines, food, and tourist souvenirs. The list which conservationists presents only a fraction of the species at risk of extinction today and does not include thousands of species whose status we do not yet know. Hundreds of species without common names have been left out, which means that while many mammals are on this list, only a few insects and mollusks are included. 
Species listed here range from the largest animal on Earth, the blue whale, to the majestic tiger, to the humble thick-shell pond snail. Large or small, beautiful or ugly, all species play a role in the complex circle of life. All of us depend on the natural resources of our planet. Each time a species is lost, the complexity, natural balance, and beauty of our world is diminished. And what threatens plants and animals ultimately threatens people as well.
46. According to the first paragraph _______.
A. species extinction is only caused by hunting
B. human beings protect wife life much more than they do harm to them
C. the main cause of species extinction is human activities
D. we can stop radically species extinction by 2025
47. The North American bison _______.
A. was completely extinct in 1800s	B. was not the aim of human hunting
C. was raised by settlers in 1800s	D. has escaped from extinction thanks to conservationists
48. Species are categorized _______.
A. to prevent hunting 	B. to provide food
C. to destroy their habitats 	D. to give preferential right to conserve
49. Which sentence is true?
A. Medicine is not a factor to cause species extinction.
B. The list which conservationists present does not include all kinds of species.
C. Pollution does nothing to species extinction.
D. Conservationists have good knowledge of all kinds of mollusks.
50. According to the last paragraph, _______.
A. species extinction has no relationship to human beings
B. what threaten plants and animals can do nothing to human beings
C. human beings depend on natural resources to survive
D. not every, species has a role in the circle of life.
----------------
PERIOD 3-4
PRACTICE TEST 2 (UNIT 11: BOOKS)
OBJECTIVES: By the end of the lesson, Ss will be able to master the main grammar points of Unit 11, enhance new vocabulary relating to Unit 11 and improve their reading skill through practice.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. 
A. hour	B. exhibition	C. helicopter	D. vehicle
A. swallow	B. hallow	C. below	D. allow	
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions. 
A. survive	B. digest	C. romance	D. journey
A. wilderness	B. fascinate	C. character	D. understand	
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. 
Books in the home are a wonderful______________ of knowledge and pleasure.
A. source	B. resource	C. list	D. sum
Reviewers describe books ______________ "hard-to-put-down", or "hard-to-pick-up-again".
A. as	B. for 	C. into 	D. in
Books are still a cheap______________ to get knowledge and entertainment.
A. means 	B. way	C. method 	D. measure 
A short story is a prose writing about______________ events and characters. 
A. imagined  	B. imagination  	C. imagining  	D. imaginatively 
If I find any book ______a subject which I am interested in, I want to “chew and digest it”
A. about	B. of	C. on	D. with
If you like books with an exciting story especially one about crime and spies, read a_______.
A. novel	B. comic	C. thriller	D. science fiction
What are the advantages of e-newspapers______________the printed ones?
A. than	B. with	C. over	D. in
You say ______________anything. Your eyes have told me everything.
A. need	B. mustn’t	C. must	D. needn’t
Don’t smell that wild follower! It______________cause you an allergy.
A. won’t smell	B. might	C. should	D. ought to
_________, books continue to be the primary means for the storage of human’s experience.
A. Although other media have been challenged 	B. When the challenge from other media comes up
C. provided that you book in advance	D. Despite the challenge from the other media
She was overjoyed because her article______________.
A. has been published	B. has published	C. had been published	D. had published
Nowadays a large number of young people spend much time______________.
A. with surfing the Internet B. surf the Internet	C. surfing the Internet	D. to surf the Internet	
Wash these grapes thoroughly because the preservatives__________on unwashed fruit.
A. can be finding	B. can find	C. can found	D. can be found	
Skiing is a popular American sport, ______________________.
A. however it is quite expensive	B. despite its quite expensive
C. even though it is quite expensive	D. it is quite expensive
Take your money with you ____________________.
A. in case you’ll see any good souvenirs to buy	B. unless you see any good souvenirs to buy
C. in case you see any good souvenirs to buy	D. provided that you’ll see any good souvenirs to buy
John was sacked last year. He ________________ harder.
A. may have worked	B. should have worked	C. must have worked	D. should be working
_____________Europe is _____________second smallest continent in _____________world.
A. An/ the/ the	B. The/ the/ the	C. Ø/ the/ the	D. Ø/ the/ a	
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. 
As a newspaper reporter she always wants to get information at first hand.
	A. quickly 	B. slowly 	C. easily 	D. directly
Don’t believe in what he says because what he says is incredible. 
	A. unbelievable	B. reasonable 	C. illegal	D. uncomfortable
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. 
Her thoughtless comments made him very angry.
	A. honest	B. kind	C. pleasant	D. thoughtful
I can’t understand why she did that. It really doesn’t add up.
	A. makes the wrong addition B. doesn’t make sense	C. seem reasonable	D. is not mathematics
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.
Her phone card ran out during her conversation with her mother.
	A. Although her phone card ran out, she had a conversation with her mother.
	B. Her phone card ran out because she had a conservation with her mother.
C. Her phone card ran out while she was talking to her mother.
D. Her phone card ran out after she had talked to her mother.
It was mistake of you to lose your passport.
A. You needn’t have brought your passport.	B. Your passport must be lost.
C. You shouldn’t have lost your passport.	D. There must be a mistake in your passport.
You mustn’t spit and litter in public places.
A. Spitting and littering in public places is not recommended.
B. You are not allowed to spit and litter in public places.
C. No one is allowed spit and litter in public places but you.
D. It’s unnecessary that you spit and litter in public places.
Workers are not allowed to use the office phone for personal calls.
A. They don’t let workers use the office phone.	
B. The office phone is supposed to be used by workers only.
C. They don’t allowed workers to make phone calls personally.
D. Workers must not use the office phone for personal purposes.
Without his help, we would all have died.
A. If it doesn’t be for his help, we would all have died.	B. If it hadn’t been for his help, we would all have died.
C. we would all have died if it wasn’t for his help.	D. Unless it hadn’t been for his help, we would all have died.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. 
You must read the instructions, otherwise you won’t know how to use this machine without reading them.
	A. Reading the instructions, so you will know how to use this machine.
	B. Without reading the instructions, the use of this machine won’t be known.
	C. Unless you read the instructions, you won’t know how to use this machine.	
	D. You will know how to use this machine unless you read the instructions
She wasn’t wearing a seat-belt. She was injured.
A. If she hadn’t been wearing a seat-belt, she wouldn’t have been injured.
B. If she had been wearing a seat-belt, she would have been injured.
C. If she hadn’t been wearing a seat-belt, she wouldn’t be injured.
D. If she had been wearing a seat-belt, she wouldn’t have been injured.
His speech was boring. Everyone got up and left.
	A. He got up and left because everyone was talking.
	B. No one stayed to listen to him because his speech was so boring.
	C. Every one stood up so that they could hear his speech.
 D. His speech was interesting enough for everyone to listen.
She is the first participant. She takes part in this game.
A. She is the first participant who took part in this game.
B. She is the first participant whose takes part in this game.
C. She is the first participant taken part in this game.
D. She is the first participant to take part in this game.
 The children were attracted by the show. It was performed by the animals.
A. The children attracted by the show which was performed by the animals.
B. The children were attracted by the show to have been performed by the animals.
C. The show performing y the animals attracted the children.
D. The children were attracted by the show performed by the animals.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.
According to some reliably reports. The Malaysian missing plane MH370 with 239 people on board
 A 	 B 	C
might have crashed into the Indian ocean.
 D
Bella had better to change her study habits if she wants to be admitted to a good college.
 A 	B 	C D
I can’t help you with your homework until I will finish mine.
 A 	B 	C 	 D
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of the following exchanges. 
Liz is telling Andrew about her first novel.
 Liz: “Guess what? My first novel has just been published.”
 Andrew: “______________”
A. It’s my pleasure.	B. Congratulations! 	C. Better luck next time 	D. It’s very kind of you. 
Mr. and Mrs. Pike are talking about books.
 Mr. Pike: “What are you reading, honey?”
 Mrs. Pike: “A book about Albert Einstein. It’s actually very interesting.”
 Mr. Pike: “________________.”
A. Yes, this book is about his life	B. I don’t think you’re good at physics.
 C. How much is it?	D. Albert Einstein? The physicist?
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blank from 41 to 45.
         Reference books are not designed to be read from the first page to the last but rather to be consulted to answer the questions and provide both general and specific pieces of information.
         One of the most widely used reference books is a dictionary, which provides information about words. It lists meanings and spellings, tells how a word is pronounced, gives (41) ______ of how it is used, may reveal its origins and also lists synonyms and (42) ______. To help you find the words faster, there are guide words at the top of each page showing the first and last words on that page and of course it helps to know the alphabet!
         An atlas is also a reference book and (43) ______ charts, tables and geographical facts, as well as maps. Political maps locate countries and cities, physical maps show the formation of the land with its mountains and valleys, and economic maps show industries and agriculture. To find a specific place, you need to look in the (44) ______ at the back of the atlas and the exact position on the map. There are numerous map (45) ______ that you need to know in order to be able to read a map-almost like a special language-and these are explained at the front of the atlas.
A. evidence             	B. roof 	C. examples	D.  cases
A. antonyms                 	B. Closest	C. opposite 	D. controversies
A. composes                	B. Includes	C. Consists	D. contains
A. foreword             	B. Preface	C. complement 	D. index
A. marks             	B. signs   	C. signals    	D. symbols
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 46 to 50.
In the 20th century, magazines have been a major growth area of popular publishing. Specialist magazines cater to every imaginable field and activity. In the United Kingdom, over 12,000 periodicals, magazines, bulletins, annuals, trade journals, and academic journals are published on a regular basis. There are some 40 women‘s magazines and over 60 dealing with particular sports games, hobbies, and pastimes. Although some US magazines, such as The Saturday Evening Post, has succumbed to the circulations, The Reader‘s Digest over 16 million, the National Geographic over 10 million. For many people, magazines have been the most available and widely used form of continuing education, providing information about history, geography, literature, science, and the arts, and as well as guidance on gardening, cooking, home decorating, financial management, psychology, even marriage and family life.
Until the rise of television, magazines were the most available form of cheap, convenient entertainment in the English-speaking world. Radio served a similar function, but it was more limited in what it could do. Magazines and television, however, both address the more powerful visual sense. During the third quarter of the 20th century, coincident with a dramatic rise in the popularity of television, many general interest, especially illustrated magazines went out of business. The shift in attention of a mass audience from reading such magazines to watching television has been a major factor in this decline, but it is an implicit tribute to the older genre that its programs are generally organized in a single format and content.
The passage mainly discusses _________.
A. the rise and fall of the radio business.
B. the growth and decline of magazines in the 20th century.
C. magazines and continuing education.
D. the decline of international circulation.
The phrase “every imaginable field” is closest in meaning to __________.
A. all imaginable fields in stories and poems	B. all images in a camera‘s field of vision
C. all professions that one can think of	 D. all trade journals about farming and psychology.
The word “it” in paragraph 2 refers to __________.
A. television 	B. publishing 	C. entertainment 	D. radio
According to the passage, which of the following magazines is no longer printed?
A. The Saturday Evening post 	B. The Reader’s Digest 
C. The Nation	D. The National Geographic
What does the author say about mass audiences?
A. They have little influence on communication in the 20th century.
B. They have gone out of business.
C. They get information about gardening and psychology from radio.
D. They have shifted their attention from magazines to television.
---------------------
PERIOD 5-6
PRACTICE TEST 3 (UNIT 12: WATER SPORTS)
OBJECTIVES: By the end of the lesson, Ss will be able to master the main grammar points of Unit 12, enhance new vocabulary relating to Unit 12 and improve their reading skill through practice.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. 
1. A. punch 	B synchronized 	C. March 	D. touching
2. A. interfered 	B. allowed 	C. visited 	D. played
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions. 
3. A. personal 	B. penalty 	C. defensive 	D. vertical
4. A. overtime 	B. decision 	C. period 	D. penalize
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. 
5. The final match of the World Cup is one of the most popular sporting 	 in the world.
A. events	B. celebrations	C. competitions	D. tournaments
6. The goalie tried to catch _____ ball, but he failed.
A. a 	B. an 	C. the 	D. Ø
7. The more' goals the players _____, the more exciting the match became.
A. marked 	B. made 	C. scored 	D. sprinted
8. If a defender_____ a foul within the five meter area that prevents a likely goal, the attacking team is awarded a penalty throw or shot.
A. commits 	B. interferes 	C. punches 	D. touches
9. _____is a sport in which people or teams race against each other in boats with oars.
A. Rowing 	B. Windsurfing 	C. Swimming 	D. Water polo
10. _____ is a sport in which two or more people perform complicated and carefully planned movements in water in time to music.
A. Rowing 	B. Windsurfing 	C. Diving 	D. Synchronized swimming
11. I am worried about the contest tomorrow because my _____ has once won the championship.
A. player	B. enemy	C. partner	D. opponent
12. In water polo, the _____ wear red caps with the number one in white.
A. goalies	B. referees	C. coaches	D. umpires
13. Shots usually succeed when the goalie is out _____ position.
A. into 	B. of	C. for 	D. off
14. If a defender _____ with a free throw, holds or sinks an attacker, he is excluded from the game for twenty seconds.
A. punches 	B. passes 	C. plays 	D. interferes
15. __________ completion _______ each activity, you will have to answer the questions on the worksheets within two minutes.
	A. At / with	B. In / with	C. On / of	D. With / of
16. Minor _____ occur when a player impedes or otherwise prevents the free movement of an opponent including swimming on the opponent's shoulders, back or legs.
A. penalties 	B. shots 	C. fouls 	D. motions
17. Peter said that if he ________ rich, he ________ a lot.
	A. is – will travel	B. were / would travel	C. had been – will travel	D. was – will travel
18. He asked the children ___________ too much noise.
	A. not to make	B. not making	C. don’t make	D. if they don’t make
19. ___________ that few buildings were left standing in the town.
	A. Such was the strength of the earthquake	B. So strong the earthquake was
	C. Such the strength of the earthquake was	D. So was the strength of the earthquake
20. The referee's _______ is the most important in any sport competition.
A. decide 	B. decisive 	C. decision 	D. decider 
21. The main task of a defender in a sport game is to _____the opponents from scoring.
A. prevent 	B. preventing 	C. prevention 	D. preventable
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. 
22. After a tie, there are two overtime periods of three minutes each.
A. penalty 	B. draw 	C. score 	D. goal
23. The goalkeeper can also be ejected for twenty seconds if a major foul is committed.
A. advanced 	B. sprinted 	C. played 	D. excluded
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. 
24. Whatever the activity level, all types of hobbies can require high levels of expertise.
A. incapable 	B. incompetence	C. expertness 	D. skillfulness 
25. We try to create an atmosphere of comfort and security or our children.
A. danger	B. harmony	C. shelter	D. safety
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. 
26. Besides movies and music, it’s sports that most Americans enjoy.
A. Sports are enjoyed by most Americans besides movies and music.
B. It was sports that are enjoyed by most Americans besides movies and music.
C. Besides movies and music, it’s sports that are enjoyed by most Americans.
D. Besides movies and music, sports are that enjoyed by most Americans.
27. If people want to go snorkeling, they need a mask, a snorkel and swimming trunks. 
	A. In order for us to go snorkeling, they need a mask, a snorkel and swimming trunks.
	B. In order to go snorkeling, people need a mask, a snorkel and swimming trunks.
	C. So that to go swimming, they need a mask, a snorkel and swimming trunks.
	D. For them going snorkeling, they need a mask, a snorkel and swimming trunks.
28. I have to book the hotel, and I have to make the travel arrangements.
	A. I have to book the hotel in addition to make the travel arrangements.
	B. In addition to booking the hotel, I have to make the travel arrangements.
	C. Though I book the hotel, I have to make the travel arrangements.
	D. I have to make the travel arrangements despite booking the hotel.
29. He could escape from hurt because he was wearing protective clothes.
A. Thanks to his protective clothes, he could escape from hurt. B. His protective clothes made him hurt.
C. Due to his protective clothes, he was hurt. D. His being hurt made his unable to wear protective clothes.
30. Because it was an interesting novel, I stayed up all night to finish it.
	A. I stayed up all night to finish the novel, therefore, it was interesting.
	B. Unless it were an interesting novel, I would stay up all night to finish it.
	C. Though it was an interesting novel, I stayed up all night to finish it.
	D. So interesting was the novel that I stayed up all night to finish it.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. 
31. The match on Sunday is very popular. It was wise of him to buy the tickets in advance.
A. Since it is a popular match, he should have brought the tickets beforehand.
B. Although he bought the tickets in advance, he wasn’t wise to foresee the match popularity.
C. Such is the popularity of the match on Sunday that he wisely bought the tickets beforehand.
D. The match on Sunday is so popular that he had enough wisdom to buy the tickets in advance.
32. He didn’t take his father’s advice. That’s why he is out of work. 
A. If he had taken his father’s advice, he would not have been out of work.
B. If he took his father’s advice, he would not be out of work.
C. If he had taken his father’s advice, he would not be out of work.
D. If he takes his father’s advice, he will not be out of work.
33. We didn’t want to spend a lot of money. We stayed in a cheap hotel.
	A. Rather than spend a lot of money, we stayed in a cheap hotel.
	B. In spite of spending a lot of money, we stayed in a cheap hotel.
	C. We stayed in a cheap hotel, but we had a lot of money to spend.
	D. We didn’t stay in a cheap hotel as we had a lot of money to spend.
34. It has rained heavily for three days. All rivers and lakes have got flooded.
	A. All rivers and lakes have got flooded because it rained heavily for three days.
	B. The three-day heavy rain has flooded all rivers and lakes.
	C. It rained heavily for three days, which caused all rivers and lakes got flooded.
	D. All rivers and lakes have got flooded after it rained heavily for three days.
35. He applied for the job abroad. He wanted to develop himself and earn more money.
	A. So as to earn more money for development, he applied for the job abroad.
	B. He applied for the job abroad in order to develop himself and earn more money.
	C. He applied for the job abroad, so he developed himself and earn more money.
	D. To earn more money was the reason why he applied for the job abroad.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. 
36. The first world championship of windsurfing held in 1973. Windsurfing first became an Olympic 
 A 	 B 	C 	 D
sport in 1984 for men and 1992 for women.
37. Skydiving, a difficult and dangerous sport, are becoming very popular with both men and women.
	A	B	 C	 D
38. William Samuel Johnson, who helped write the Constitution, become the first president of 
	 A	 B	 C	 D
Columbia University in 1787.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of the following exchanges. 
39.-John: "Do you feel like going to the stadium this afternoon?" 	- Mary: “____________”
A. I don't agree. I'm afraid. B. I feel very bored. 	C. You're welcomed. 	D. That would be great.
40. “What would you like to do at the weekend?” “_________________”
I like to do a lot.	B. I can’t stand it.
C. I’d like to see a football match.	D. I don’t like the weekend.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blank. 
As well as being a necessary life-saving skill, swimming also (41) _______ us with a source of great pleasure and relaxation. Swimming, as well as other water sports like diving, surfing or just floating on your back, are some of the best ways to have fun and keep fit at the same time. Water sports are enjoyable for people of all ages and even babies can learn to swim. For elderly people or those with physical handicaps, swimming provides gentle, yet effective exercise, Swimming for fitness and recreation has been popular (42) _____ the earliest times, for instance in ancient Egypt, Greece and Roma. Swimming competitions developed in the nineteenth century and swimming races were (43) ________ in the first of the modern Olympic Games in 1896. Now water sports are practiced all over the world and most towns have at least one swimming pool. Most water sports - swimming, surfing and water-skiing, etc, take (44) _______ on the surface of the water, but scuba divers explore deep below the waves. There they can find fascinating sea creatures and strange rock formations. Some archaeologists are divers who search the seabed for wrecks of ships sunk hundreds of years ago (45) _____ contain objects that show how people lived in ancient times.
41. A. provides 	B. gives 	C. offers 	D. delivers
42. A. in 	B. for 	C. within 	D. since
43. A. included 	B. consisted 	C. presented 	D. mentioned
44. A. part 	B. place 	C. time 	D. up
45. A. who 	B. whom	C. which	D. whose
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. 
Recreational diving or sport diving is a type of diving that uses scuba equipment for the purpose of leisure and enjoyment. In some diving circles, the term "recreational diving" is used in contradistinction to "technical diving", a more demanding aspect of the sport which requires greater levels of training, experience and equipment. 
Recreational scuba diving grew out of related activities such as snorkeling and underwater hunting. For a long time, recreational underwater excursions were limited by the amount of breath that could be held. However, the invention of the aqualung in 1943 by Jacques-Yves Cousteau and its development over subsequent years led to a revolution in recreational diving. However, for much of the 1950s and early1960s, recreational scuba diving was a sport limited to those who were able to afford or make their own kit, and prepared to undergo intensive training to use it. As the sport became more popular, manufacturers became aware of the potential market, and equipment began to appear that was easy to use, affordable and reliable. Continued advances in' SCUBA technology, such as buoyancy compensators, modern diving regulators, wet or dry suits, and dive computers, increased the safety, comfort and convenience of the gear encouraging more people to train and use it.
Until the early 1950s, navies and other organizations performing professional diving were the only providers of diver training, but only for their own personnel and only using their own types of equipment. There were no training courses available to civilians who bought the first scuba equipment. Professional instruction started in 1959 when the non-profit National Association of Underwater Instructors was formed.
Further developments in technology have reduced the cost of training and diving. Scuba-diving has become a popular leisure activity, and many diving locations have some form of dive shop presence that can offer air fills, equipment and training. In tropical and sub-tropical parts of the world, there is a large market in holiday divers, who train and dive while on holiday, but rarely dive close to home. Generally, recreational diving depths are limited to a maximum of between 30 and 40 meters (100 and 130 feet), beyond which a variety of safety issues make it unsafe to dive using recreation diving equipment and practices, and specialized training and equipment for technical diving are needed.
46. Recreational diving _______.
A. requires more equipment than technical diving
B. are taken up by many people for leisure and entertainment
C. needs no equipment
D. requires more experience than technical diving
47. Recreational underwater excursions used to be limited _______.
A. as underwater hunting was banned
B. because the necessary amount of breath was too expensive to afford
C. because divers could not take enough amount of breath with them
D. because the necessary amount of breath was too heavy to bring
48. According to the second paragraph, in the 1950s and early 1960s, recreational scuba diving was a sport limited because _______.
A. divers did not like to take part in any intensive training courses
B. there were not any intensive training courses for divers
C. there were not enough kit for many divers
D. kit and intensive training were too expensive for many people to afford
49. These following sentences are true EXCEPT _______.
A. In the early 1950s anyone who wanted to dive could be professionally trained.
B. In the early 1950s there were no training courses available to civilians who bought the first scuba equipment. 
C. As recreational diving became more popular, manufacturers have made more and more diving equipment.
D. Advances in scuba technology encourage more and more people to train and use it.
50. Holiday divers _______.
A. do not like to dive in tropical and sub-tropical parts
B. can dive as deep as they like because of safety
C. are those who go away from home to dive
D. are limited in tropical and sub-tropical parts
------------------
PERIOD 7-8
PRACTICE TEST 4 (UNIT 13: THE 22ND SEA GAMES)
OBJECTIVES: By the end of the lesson, Ss will be able to master the main grammar points of Unit 13, enhance new vocabulary relating to Unit 13 and improve their reading skill through practice.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. 
1.	A. peace 	B. great	C. increase 	D. team
2.	 A. player	B. nervous	C. determine	D. term
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions. 
3.	A. history	B. horrible	C. important	D. hopefully
4.	A. institution	B. recognition	C. stimulation	D. spectacular
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. 
5. He drives as __________ his father does.
	A. careful as	B. more carefully	C. the most careful	D. carefully as
6. Of the four dresses, which is ______ expensive?
	A. the best	B. the most	C. the more	D. most
7. He spent a year in India and loves spicy food. ___________ the food is, ________ he likes it.
A. The hotter / the more and more	B. The hotter / the more
C. The more and more hot/ the more	D. The hottest / the most
8. It gets ___________ to understand what the professor has explained.
A. the more difficult	B. more difficult than	C. difficult more and more	D. more and more difficult
9. I feel ______________ I did yesterday
A. much more tired than	B. many more tired than	C. as many tired as	D. as more tired as
10. The more waste paper we recycle, __________________.
	A. the more trees we preserve	B. the less trees we preserve
	C. the most trees we preserve	D. the least trees we preserve
11. It is the first time I _______ snow.	
A. saw	B. see	C. have seen	D. had seen
12.Be careful of that dog. It _______ bite you.
A. may	B. should	C. would 	D. must 
13.Swimming and water skiing are both __________sports
	A. freestyle	B. aquatic	C. field	D. blood
14. Everybody was exhausted. It looked as if they ________ hard.
A. had been working	B. worked	C. were working	 D. have worked
15. I clean my bathroom _________.
A.out of the blue.	B. feeling blue.	C. once in a blue moon.	D. blue in the face.
16. ___________ is the activity of doing special exercises regularly in order to make your muscles grow bigger.
A. Wrestling	B. Bodybuilding	C. Weightlifting	D. Badminton
17. The athlete had tried his best to ______ his SEA Games title and records.
A. carry	B. perform	C. defend	D. support
18. They told me he had __________a gold medal in wushu.
A. won	B. scored 	C. gained 	D. got
19. Singapore and Vietnam had ________who were awarded the Most Outstanding Athlete titles in the Swimming and Shooting events.
A. participates	B. participations	C. participants	D. participated
20. The SEA Games ________every two years, with 11 countries in Southeast Asia participating.
A. comes down	B. sets up	C. takes place	D. brings about
21. A: “ How about a biscuit?” B: “ ________ . I’m on a diet.”
A. Yes, please	B. Yes, thank you	C. No, thanks	D. It’s OK
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. 
22. I will communicate with you as soon as I have any news.
A. be related	B. be interested in	C. get in touch	D. have connection	
23 . The ASEAN Para-Games are hosted by the same country where the SEA Games took place.
A. organized	B. impressed	C. participated	D. defended
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. 
24. She could not hide her dismay at the result.
A. disappointment        	B. depression           	C. happiness                        D. pessimism
25. Certain courses are compulsory; others are optional.
A. voluntary 	B. free 	C. pressure 	D. mandatory
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. 
26. I have never met anyone who is more intelligent than Mr Ba.
A. Mr Ba is the most intelligent man I have ever met.
B. The more I meet Mr Ba, the more intelligent he seems to be.
C. Mr Ba is the most intelligent man in the world.
D. Nobody in the world is as intelligent as Mr Ba.
27. David was narrowly defeated and blew his own chance of becoming a champion.
A. Losing the championship came as a terrible blow to David.
B. In spite of the narrow defeat, David won the championship.
C. As a result of his narrow defeat, David did not win the championship.
D. But for his title as the former champion, David would not have defeated his rivals.
28. He tries to practise English every day so he can speak English more fluently now.
A. The more he practises English, the more he can speak English.
B. The more he practises English, the more fluently he can speak it.
C. The more he tries to practise English, the most fluently he can speak it.
D. He tries to practise English every day, but he finds it difficult to speak English
29. The crowd became increasingly angry at the long delay.
	A. The crowd became very angry because the delay was so long.
	B. The more increasingly the crowd became, the longer the delay was.
	C. The longer the delay was, the angrier the crowd became.
	D. The more the crowd became angry at the delay, the longer they feel.
30. I regret that you didn’t give me a chance to tell you the truth.
	A. I wish you didn’t give me a chance to tell you the truth.
	B. I wish you gave me a chance to tell you the truth.
	C. I wish you had given me a chance to tell you the truth.
	D. I wish you hadn’t given me a chance to tell you the truth.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following qu

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