Đề ôn tập kiểm tra môn Tiếng Anh Lớp 12 - Mock Test 3

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Đề ôn tập kiểm tra môn Tiếng Anh Lớp 12 - Mock Test 3
ENGLISH 12 – MOCK TEST 3
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1. A. kites	B. hopes	C. balls	D. kicks
Question 2. A. hire	B. flown	C. hair 	D. hi 
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. answer	B. destroy	C. allow 	D. complain
Question 4. A. twenty	B. reporter	C. notebook 	D. poverty
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 5. I am gripped with a fever whenever a new year is coming. 
	A. I feel disappointed 	B. I am excited 
	C. I get upset 	D. I have got a temperature 
Question 6. It was relatively easy for him to learn baseball because he had been a cricket player. 
	A. nearly 	B. essentially 	C. comparatively 	D. approximately 
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. 
Question 7. The presentation by Dr. Dineen was self-explanatory. 
	A. bright 	B. discouraging 	C. confusing 	D. enlightening 
Question 8. She gave an impeccable reading of the sonata and had the audience on their feet. 
	A. unqualified 	B. imperfect 	C. suspicious 	D. negative 
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges. 
Question 9. Hoa is asking Hai, who is sitting at a corner of the room, seeming too shy. 
- Hoa: “Why aren’t you taking part in our activities? ___________” 
- Hai: “Yes, I can. Certainly.” 
	A. Could you please show me how to get the nearest post office? 	B. Shall I take your hat off? 
	C. Can you help me with this decoration? 	D. Can I help you? 
Question 10. Mary is talking to a porter in the hotel lobby. 
- Porter: “Shall I help you with your suitcase?” - Mary: “__________” 
	A. What nonsense! 	B. That’s very kind of you. 
	C. What a pity! 	D. I can’t agree more. 
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. 
Question 11. Dams are used to control flooding, provide water for irrigation, and generating electricity for the surrounding area. 
	A. to control flooding 	B. irrigation 	C. generating 	D. surrounding area 
Question 12. Weather and geography conditions may determine the type of transportation used in a region. 
	A. Weather 	B. geography 	C. type 	D. used 
Question 13. Geothermal energy is energy to obtain by using heat from the Earth’s interior. 
	A. energy 	B. to obtain 	C. using 	D. the Earth’s 
Question 14. The more tired you are, the least hard you concentrate. 
	A. more tired 	B. you are 	C. least hard 	D. concentrate 
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. 
Question 15. If I hadn’t had so much work to do, I would have gone to the movies. 
	A. I never go to the movies if I had work to do. 
	B. Because I had to do so much work, I couldn’t go to the movies. 
	C. I would go to the movies when I had done so much work. 
	D. A lot of work couldn’t prevent me from going to the movies. 
Question 16. It is an undeniable fact that children watch too much TV. 
	A. It’s undeniable that too many children watch TV. 
	B. It’s undeniable that children don’t watch too many TV programmes. 
	C. It can’t be denied that children watch too many TV programmes. 
	D. It’s obviously true that children spend too much time watching TV. 
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. 
Question 17. You usually drive fast. You use more petrol than usual. 
	A. The faster you drive, the more you use petrol. 
	B. The more you drive fast, the more you use petrol.
	C. The faster you drive, the more petrol you use. 
	D. The more fast you drive, the more petrol you use. 
Question 18. The agreement ended six-month negotiation. It was signed yesterday. 
	A. The agreement which was signed yesterday lasted six-month. 
	B. The agreement which was signed yesterday ended six-month negotiation. 
	C. The agreement which ends six-month negotiation was signed yesterday. 
	D. The agreement which lasted six-month was signed yesterday. 
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. 
Question 19. ________, we stay inside the house. 
	A. The storm day it was 	B. It is a stormy day 
	C. It was a stormy day 	D. It being a stormy day 
Question 20. Unless you _______ well-trained, you _______ to the company. 
	A. aren’t / will never be admitted 	B. aren’t / will never admit 
	C. are / will never be admitted 	D. are / will never admit 
Question 21. Fax transmission has now become a cheap and _______ way to transmit texts and graphics over distance. 
	A. convenient 	B. inconvenient 	C. uncomfortable 	D. comfortable 
Question 22. ________, we tried our best to complete it. 
	A. Difficult as the homework was 	B. As though the homework was difficult 
	C. Thanks to the difficult homework 	D. Despite the homework was difficult 
Question 23. That carcinogenic substances _______ in many common household items is well-known. 
	A. are contained 	B. containing 	C. are containing 	D. contained 
Question 24. The second-hand car Patrick bought was almost new _______ it was made in the 1990s. 
	A. or 	B. because 	C. although 	D. however 
Question 25. I like doing _______ such as cooking, washing and cleaning the house. 
	A. house-keeper 	B. household chores 	C. lord of house 	D. white house 
Question 26. Unfortunately, some really ill animals have to be ________ by our center. 
	A. pass away 	B. turned over 	C. taken out 	D. put down 
Question 27. I _______ Lan since she went abroad. 
	A. wasn’t met 	B. hadn’t met 	C. didn’t meet 	D. haven’t met 
Question 28. “Did the minister approve the building plans?” 
“Not really. He turned them down _______ that the costs were too high.”
	A. in case 	B. supposing 	C. provided 	D. on the grounds 
Question 29. Failing to submit the proposal on time was _____ for Tom. 
	A. a real kick in the pants 	B. an open and shut case 
	C. a shot in the dark 	D. a nail in the coffin 
Question 30. They always kept on good _______ with their next-door neighbors for the children’s sake. 
	A. relations 	B. terms 	C. will 	D. relationship
Read the passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following blanks from 31 to 35.
American folk music originated with (31) ________ people at a time when the rural population was isolated and music was not (32) ________ spread by radio, records, or music video. It was (33) ______ by oral traditional and is noted for its energy, humor, and emotional impact. The major source of early American folk songs was music from the British Isles, but songs from Africa as songs of the American Indians have significant part in its heritage. Later settler from other countries also contributed songs. In the nineteenth century, composer Steven Foster wrote some of the most enduringly popular of all American songs, (34) _______ soon became part of the folk tradition. Beginning in the 1930s, Woody Guthrie gained great popularity by adapting melodies and lyrics and supplying new ones as well. In the 1950s and 1960s, singer - composers such as Peter Seeger, Bob Dylan, Joan Baez continued this tradition by urban’ folk music. Many of these songs deal (35) ______ important social issue, such as racial integration and the war in Vietnam.
Question 31.
A. ordinary 
B. popular 
C. common 
D. typical 
Question 32.
A. even 
B. still 
C. until 
D. yet 
Question 33.
A. transferred 
B. transformed 
C. transmitted 
D. transited 
Question 34.
A. which 
B. this 
C. who 
D. that 
Question 35.
A. in 
B. by 
C. with 
D. at 
Read the passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions from 36 to 42.
One of the seven wonders of the ancient world, the Great Pyramid of Giza was a monument of wisdom and prophecy built as a tomb for Pharaoh Cheops in 2720 B.C. Despite its antiquity, certain aspects of its construction make it one of the truly wonders of the world. The thirteen- acre structure near the Nile river is a solid mass of stone blocks covered with limestone. Inside are the number of hidden passageways and the burial chamber of the Pharaoh. It is the largest single structure in the world. The four sides of the pyramid are aligned almost exactly on true north, south, east and west-an incredible engineering feat. The ancient Egyptians were sun worshippers and great astronomers, so computations for the Great Pyramid were based on astronomical observations.
Explorations and detailed examinations of the base of the structure reveal many intersecting lines. Further scientific study indicates that these represent a type of timeline of events – past, present and future. Many of the events have been interpreted and found to coincide with known facts of the past. Others are prophesied for future generations and are currently under investigation. Many believe that pyramids have supernatural powers and this one is no exception. Some researchers even associate it with extraterrestrial beings of ancient past.
Was this superstructure made by ordinary beings, or one built by a race far superior to any known today?
Question 36. In the second passage, the word ‘prophesied’ is closest in meaning to ____. 
	A. foretold 	B. terminated 	C. precipitated 	D. affiliated 
Question 37. On what did the ancient Egyptians base their calculations? 
	A. Advanced tools of measurement 	B. Knowledge of the earth’s surface 
	C. Advanced technology 	D. Observation of the celestial bodies 
Question 38. What was the most probable reason for providing so many hidden passages? 
	A. To allow the weight of the pyramid to settle evenly. 
	B. To permit the high priests to pray at night. 
	C. To keep grave robbers from finding the tomb and the treasure buried with the Pharaoh. 
	D. To enable the Pharaoh’s family to bring food for his journey to the afterlife 
Question 39. The word ‘feat’ in the first paragraph is closet in meaning to ____. 
	A. accomplishment 	B. festivity 	C. appendage 	D. structure 
Question 40. What is the best title for the passage? 
	A. Problems with the Construction of the Great Pyramid 
	B. Exploration of the Burial Chamber of Cheops 
	C. Symbolism of the Great Pyramid 	D. Wonders of the Great Pyramid of Giza 
Question 41. Why is the Great Pyramid of Giza considered one of the seven wonders of the world? 
	A. It was built by a super race. 
	B. It is perfectly aligned with the four cardinal points of the compass and contains many prophecies. 
	C. It was selected of the tomb of Pharaoh Cheops. 	D. It was very old. 
Question 42. What has research of the base revealed? 
	A. There are cracks in the foundation 	B. Tomb robbers have stolen the Pharaoh’s body 
	C. A superior race of people built in 	D. The lines represent important events 
Read the passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions from 43 to 50.
Overpopulation, the situation of having large numbers of people with too few resources and too little space, is closely associated with poverty. It can result from high population density, or from low amounts of resources, or from both. Excessively high population densities put stress on available resources. Only a certain number of people can be supported on a given area of land, and that number depends on how much food and other resources the land can provide. In countries where people live primarily by means of simple farming, gardening, herding, hunting, and gathering, even large areas of land can support only small numbers of people because these labor-intensive subsistence activities produce only small amounts of food.
In developed countries such as the United States, Japan, and the countries of Western Europe, overpopulation generally is not considered a major cause of poverty. These countries produce large quantities of food through mechanized farming, which depends on commercial fertilizers, large-scale irrigation, and agricultural machinery. This form of production provides enough food to support the high densities of people in metropolitan areas.
A country’s level of poverty can depend greatly on its mix of population density and agricultural productivity. Bangladesh, for example, has one of the world’s highest population densities, with 1,147 persons per sq km. A large majority of the people of Bangladesh engage in low-productivity manual farming, which contributes to the country’s extremely high level of poverty. Some of the smaller countries in Western Europe, such as the Netherlands and Belgium, have high population densities as well. These countries practice mechanized farming and are involved in high-tech industries, however, and therefore have high standards of living.
At the other end of the spectrum, many countries in sub-Saharan Africa have population densities of less than 30 persons per sq km. Many people in these countries practice manual subsistence farming; these countries also have infertile land, and lack the economic resources and technology to boost productivity. As a consequence, these nations are very poor. The United States has both relatively low population density and high agricultural productivity; it is one of the world’s wealthiest nations.
High birth rates contribute to overpopulation in many developing countries. Children are assets to many poor families because they provide labor, usually for farming. Cultural norms in traditionally rural societies commonly sanction the value of large families. Also, the governments of developing countries often provide little or no support, financial or political, for family planning; even people who wish to keep their families small have difficulty doing so. For all these reasons, developing countries tend to have high rates of population growth.
Question 43. Which of the following is a contributor to overpopulation in many developing countries? 
	A. Sufficient financial support 	B. High-tech facilities 
	C. High birth rates 	D. Economic resources 
Question 44. The word “infertile” in paragraph 4 probably means ______. 
	A. inaccessible 	B. unproductive 	C. impossible 	D. disused 
Question 45. The phrase “engage in” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ______. 
	A. participate in 	B. escape from 	C. look into 	D. give up 
Question 46. Which of the following could be the best title for the passage? 
	A. High Birth Rate and its Consequences 	B. Overpopulation: A Cause of Poverty 
	C. Overpopulation: A Worldwide Problem 	D. Poverty in Developing Countries 
Question 47. The phrase “that number” in paragraph 1 refers to the number of ______. 
	A. countries B. resources 	C. people 	D. densities 
Question 48. In certain countries, large areas of land can only yield small amounts of food because ______. 
	A. there are small numbers of laborers 	B. there is a lack of mechanization 
	C. there is an abundance of resources 	D. there is no shortage of skilled labor 
Question 49. Which of the following is TRUE, according to the passage? 
	A. There is no connection between a country’s culture and overpopulation. 
	B. In certain developed countries, mechanized farming is applied. 
	C. All small countries in Western Europe have high population densities. 
	D. In sub-Saharan African countries, productivity is boosted by technology. 
Question 50. Bangladesh is a country where the level of poverty depends greatly on ______. 
	A. its population density only 	B. both population density and agricultural productivity 
	C. population density in metropolitan areas 	D. its high agricultural productivity
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