Đề ôn tập kiểm tra môn Tiếng Anh Lớp 12 - Mock Test 16

ENGLISH 12 – MOCK TEST 16
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. 
Question 1. A. considered	B. received	C. picked	D. stayed
Question 2. A. throw 	B. crow	C. slow	D. brow
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions. 
Question 3. A. report	B. conclude 	C. deter	D. sanction
Question 4. A. advertise 	B. definite 	C. composite	D. communicate
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. 
Question 5. Her parents let her stay out late, __________?
	A. do they	B. don’t they 	C. does she	 D. doesn’t she
Question 6. The English grammar __________ by our teacher.
	A. has explained	B. has been explained 	C. have been explained 	D. have explained 
Question 7. He seems friendly __________ everyone in the village. 
	A. on 	B. to 	C. for	D. about 
Question 8. The larger the city, __________ the crime rate. 
	A. highest 	B. higher 	C. the highest 	D. the higher
Question 9. Visitors to the local museum are mostly attracted by __________ rocking chair.
	A. an old wooden European beautiful 	B. a beautiful old European wooden
	C. an old beautiful wooden European 	D. a wooden old beautiful European
Question 10. We __________ lunch when we heard the news. 
	A. were having 	B. was having 	C. had	D. are having 
Question 11. __________ his father’s being there, I said nothing about his bad mark of the test.
	A. Because of	B. Although	C. Because	D. Despite
Question 12. I will call and tell you something interesting __________.
	A. before I came home after work	B. after I had come home after work
	C. while I was coming home after work	D. when I come home after work
Question 13. __________ his own boss for such a long time, he found it hard to accept orders from another.
	A Having been	B. Is 	C. Be 	D. Been
Question 14. Children who are isolated and lonely seem to have poor language and __________.
	A. communicate	B. communication	C. communicative	D. communicator
Question 15. My responsibility is to wash dishes and __________ the garbage.
	A. take off	B. take out	C. take care of	D. take over
Question 16. My friend lives in a (n) __________ warehouse in a very fashionable part of town.
	A. transformed 	B. altered	C. changed	D. converted
Question 17. Points will be added to the Entrance Examination scores for those who hold an excellent high school __________.
	A. degree	B. certificate	C. diploma	D. qualification
Question 18. The residents are fighting tooth and __________ to stop the new development.
	A. nail	B. hair	C. mouth	D. tongue
Question 19. He committed the crime under the __________ of drugs.
	A. connection	B. touch	C. influence	D. impact
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 20. Students from that university have conducted a survey to find out the most effective study habit. 
	A. organized 	B. delayed 	C. encouraged 	D. proposed
Question 21. There is concern about several confidential documents which have gone missing.
	A. attentive	B. secretive	C. diplomatic	D. healthy
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22. The government is not prepared to tolerate this situation any longer.
	A. disallow	B. discourage	C. discount	D. distinguish
Question 23. You should pat yourself on the back for having achieved such a high score in the graduation exam.
	A. praise yourself	B. criticize yourself	C. check up your back D. wear a backpack
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of the following exchanges.
Question 24. Mary and her friend, Encobeill, are in a coffee shop.
- Mary: “Would you like Matcha ice-cream or Caramen?” - Encobeill: “__________”
	A. Thanks, that’s fine.	B. Yes, I’d love too.	
	C. It doesn’t matter.	D. Neither is fine. They are good.
Question 25. Hana and Jenifer are talking about a book they have just read.
- Hana: “The book is really interesting and educational.” - Jenifer: “__________”
	A. That’s nice of you to say so. 	B. I’d love it.
	C. Don’t mention it.	D. I couldn’t agree more.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.
Wind is a clean source of renewable energy that produces no air or water pollution. And since the wind is free, operational costs are nearly zero (26) __________ a turbine is erected. Mass production and technology advances are making turbines cheaper, and (27) __________ governments offer tax incentives to spur wind-energy development.
Drawbacks include complaints from (28) __________ that wind turbines are ugly and noisy. The slowly rotating blades can also kill birds and bats, but not nearly as many as cars, power lines, and high-rise buildings do. The wind is also variable: If it's not blowing, there's no electricity generated.
Nevertheless, the wind energy industry is (29) __________. Thanks to global efforts to combat climate change, such as the Paris Agreement, renewable energy is seeing a boom in growth, in (30) __________ wind energy has led the way. From 2000 to 2015, cumulative wind capacity around the world increased from 17,000 megawatts to more than 430,000 megawatts. In 2015, China also surpassed the EU in the number of installed wind turbines and continues to lead installation efforts.
(Adapted from https://www.nationalgeographic.com/)
Question 26. A. so that	B. though	C. therefore	D. once
Question 27. A. many	B. little	C. much	D. a little
Question 28. A. foreigners	B. masters	C. locals	D. levels
Question 29. A. worrying	B. booming	C. informing	D. relating
Question 30. A. who	B. when	C. why	D. which
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35.
CDC strives to safeguard the health and improve the quality of life of all people with diabetes. Central to that effort is helping them prevent or reduce the severity of diabetes complications, including heart disease (the leading cause of early death among people with diabetes), kidney disease, blindness, and nerve damage that can lead to lower-limb amputations.
Diabetes self-management education and support (DSMES) programs help people meet the challenges of self-care by providing them with the knowledge and skills to deal with daily diabetes management: eating healthy food, being active, checking their blood sugar, and managing stress. These programs have been shown to reduce A1C levels (average blood sugar over the last 2 to 3 months), reduce the onset and severity of diabetes complications, improve quality of life, and lower health care costs.
Diabetes is about 17% more prevalent in rural areas than urban ones, but 62% of rural counties do not have a DSMES program. The use of telehealth (delivery of the program by phone, Internet, or videoconference) may allow more patients in rural areas to benefit from DSMES and the National DPP lifestyle change program. CDC funds state and local health departments to improve access to, participation in, and health benefit coverage for DSMES, with emphasis on programs that achieve American Association of Diabetes Educators accreditation or American Diabetes Association recognition. These programs meet national quality standards and may be more sustainable because of reimbursement eligibility.
(Adapted from https://www.cdc.gov/)
Question 31. Which best serves as the title for the passage?
	A. Diabetes Complications and CDC’s Response
	B. Diabetes self-management education and support programs
	C. Knowledge of A1C levels	D. American Association of Diabetes Educators
Question 32. The word “them” in paragraph 2 refers to __________.
	A. programs	B. people	C. challenges	D. skills
Question 33. Which is NOT mentioned in paragraph 2 as a skill to deal with daily diabetes management?
	A. eating healthy food	B. checking blood sugar
	C. working effectively	D. managing stress
Question 34. The word “lower” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to __________.
	A. borrow	B. prepare	C. approach	D. reduce
Question 35. According to paragraph 3, money that state and local health departments use to improve the effectiveness of DSMES is funded by __________.
	A. A1C	B. DSMES	C. National DPP	D. CDC
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.
Advocates of the laws and journalists who cover the issue often neglect to ask what will replace plastic bags and what the environmental impact of that replacement will be. People still need bags to bring home their groceries. And the most common substitute, paper bags, may be just as bad or worse, depending on the environmental problem you are most concerned about.
That is leading to a split in the anti-bag movement. Some bills, like in Massachusetts, try to reduce the use of paper bags as well as plastic, but still favour paper. Others, like in New York City, treat all single-use bags equally. Even then, the question remains as to whether single-use bags are necessarily always worse than reusable ones.
Studies of bags’ environmental impacts over their life cycle have reached widely varying conclusions. Some are funded by plastic industry groups, like the ironically named American Progressive Bag Alliance. Even studies conducted with the purest of intentions depend on any number of assumptions. How many plastic bags are replaced by one cotton tote bag? If a plastic bag is reused in the home as the garbage bag in a bathroom waste bin, does that reduce its footprint by eliminating the need for another small plastic garbage bag?
If your chief concern is climate change, things get even muddier. One of the most comprehensive research papers on the environmental impact of bags, published in 2007 by an Australian state government agency, found that paper bags have a higher carbon footprint than plastic. That is primarily because more energy is required to produce and transport paper bags.
“People look at paper and say it’s degradable, therefore it’s much better for the environment, but it’s not in terms of climate change impact,” says David Tyler, a professor of chemistry at the University of Oregon who has examined the research on the environmental impact of bag use. The reasons for paper’s higher carbon footprint are complex but can mostly be understood as stemming from the fact that paper bags are much thicker than plastic bags. “Very broadly, carbon footprints are proportional to mass of an object,” says Tyler. For example, because paper bags take up so much more space, more trucks are needed to ship paper bags to a store than to ship plastic bags.
(Adapted from https://www.wired.com/)
Question 36. Which of the following best serves as the title for the article?
	A. Paper bags are a good substitute for plastic ones.	B. Is plastic really worse than paper?
	C. Activities of American Progressive Bag Alliance	D. What people think about paper bags	
Question 37. The word “their” in paragraph 1 refers to ______.
	A. people	B. groceries	C. paper bags	D. plastic bags
Question 38. American Progressive Bag Alliance is the name of a ______.
	A. plastic bag seller	B. paper bag company	
	C. law company	D. plastic industry group
Question 39. The word “muddier” in paragraph 4 most probably means ______.
	A. uglier	B. luckier	C. rarer	D. vaguer
Question 40. Which of the following is TRUE, according to the article?
	A. Paper bags can be the substitute for plastic bags.	B. New York City prefers single-use bags.
	C. Studies reach the same conclusion on bags’ environmental impacts.
	D. Plastic bags have a higher carbon footprint than paper according to research in 2007.
Question 41. The word “stemming” in paragraph 5 is closest in meaning to ______.
	A. looking for	B. asking for	C. deriving from	D. keeping from
Question 42. What can be inferred the reason for paper’s higher carbon footprint?
	A. Paper bags are difficult to ship.	B. Paper bags are much thicker than plastic bags.
	C. Paper bags take less space.	D. Paper bags are easily torn.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.
Question 43. Since he started primary school, he helped his mother prepare meals, do the washing up and
 A B C
take care of his younger sister.
	 D
Question 44. Kate didn't enjoy the roller coaster ride because it was the most terrifying experience of their life. 
 A	 B	 C	 D
Question 45. I am deeply impressive by the beauty of Ancient capital of Hue
	 A	 B	C	 D
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. 
Question 46. I have never read such a good book before.
 	A. This is the first time I read a good book. 	B. This is the first time I have read a good book.
 	C. This book is the best I have never read. 	D. This book is the best I read.
Question 47. “He should go to bed before 11p.m. everyday”, I said to him. 
	A. I advised him to go to bed before 11p.m. everyday.	B. He shouldn’t go to bed before 11p.m. everyday.
	C. I prayed him to go to bed before 11 p.m. everyday. 	D. I ordered him you should stay in bed. 
Question 48. Smoking is not allowed in the museum.
	A. You mustn’t smoke in the museum.	B. You can smoke in the museum.
	C. You don’t have to smoke in the museum.	D. You may smoke in the museum.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 49. Jenifer missed her chance to be promoted. What a shame!
	A. Jenifer regretted having wasted her chance to be promoted.
	B. Despite feeling ashamed, Jenifer lost her chance of promotion.
	C. If only Jenifer had seized her chance of promotion.
	D. That Jenifer missed her chance to be promoted is shameful.
Question 50: Mariah sings well. She writes good songs, too.
	A. Mariah can either sing well or write good songs.	
	B. Mariah can neither sing well or write good songs.
	C. Not only does Mariah sing well but she also writes good songs.
	D. Well as Mariah sings, she writes good songs.
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